Give step-by-step solution with explanation and final answer:1. Consider the function below: 1x 0
Question:
Give step-by-step solution with explanation and final answer:
1. Consider the function below:
1x 0
This is AI generated Response.
Asked by: pr
Created at: 2025-05-26 10:45:33
Asked by: pr
Created at: 2025-05-26 10:45:33
Final Answer:
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Let's solve the problem step by step:
---
### **Given Function:**
\[
f(x) =
\begin{cases}
1-x & 0 < x < 1 \\
0 & 1 \leq x < 2
\end{cases}
\]
---
## **(b) Represent \( f(x) \) as a Fourier Cosine Series**
#### **Step 1: Define the Interval**
- The interval is \( 0 < x < 2 \), so the period \( T = 2 \).
- We're asked for a **cosine series**, i.e., an **even extension** over \( [0,2] \).
#### **Step 2: Fourier Cosine Series Form**
For \( f(x) \) on \( 0 < x < 2 \):
\[
f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)
\]
where \( L = 2 \).
The Fourier cosine coefficients are:
\[
a_n = \frac{2}{L} \int_0^L f(x) \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right) dx
\]
With \( L = 2 \):
\[
a_n = \int_0^2 f(x) \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
---
#### **Step 3: Compute \( a_0 \):**
\[
a_0 = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^2 f(x) dx
\]
But \( f(x) = 1-x \) for \( 0 < x < 1 \), and \( f(x) = 0 \) for \( 1 \leq x < 2 \):
\[
a_0 = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \int_0^1 (1-x) dx + \int_1^2 0 \, dx \right]
= \frac{1}{2} \int_0^1 (1-x) dx
\]
\[
= \frac{1}{2} \left[ x - \frac{x^2}{2} \right]_0^1
= \frac{1}{2} \left(1 - \frac{1}{2}\right)
= \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)
= \frac{1}{4}
\]
---
#### **Step 4: Compute \( a_n \) for \( n \geq 1 \):**
\[
a_n = \int_0^2 f(x) \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
= \int_0^1 (1-x) \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
(because \( f(x)=0 \) for \( x \) from 1 to 2)
Let’s split:
\[
a_n = \int_0^1 \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx - \int_0^1 x \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
Let’s solve each part.
---
##### **First Integral:**
\[
I_1 = \int_0^1 \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
Let \( u = \frac{n\pi x}{2} \implies du = \frac{n\pi}{2} dx \implies dx = \frac{2}{n\pi} du \)
When \( x = 0, u = 0 \); when \( x = 1, u = \frac{n\pi}{2} \).
So,
\[
I_1 = \int_{u=0}^{u=\frac{n\pi}{2}} \cos(u) \frac{2}{n\pi} du = \frac{2}{n\pi} [\sin(u)]_0^{\frac{n\pi}{2}} = \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)
\]
---
##### **Second Integral:**
\[
I_2 = \int_0^1 x \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
Use integration by parts:
Let \( u = x \), \( dv = \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx \)
Then, \( du = dx \), \( v = \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) \)
So,
\[
I_2 = u v\Big|_0^1 - \int_0^1 v du
= \left[ x \cdot \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) \right]_0^1 - \int_0^1 \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
The second integral:
\[
\int_0^1 \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx
\]
Let \( w = \frac{n\pi x}{2} \implies dx = \frac{2}{n\pi} dw \)
When \( x = 0, w = 0 \); when \( x = 1, w = \frac{n\pi}{2} \):
\[
\int_0^1 \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) dx = \frac{2}{n\pi} \int_0^{\frac{n\pi}{2}} \sin(w) dw = \frac{2}{n\pi} \left[ -\cos(w) \right]_0^{\frac{n\pi}{2}}
= \frac{2}{n\pi} \left[ -\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) + 1 \right]
\]
Therefore,
\[
I_2 = \left[ \frac{2 x}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right) \right]_0^1 - \frac{2}{n\pi} \cdot \frac{2}{n\pi} [1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)]
\]
\[
= \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) - \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} [1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)]
\]
---
#### **Step 5: Combine Results**
\[
a_n = I_1 - I_2
= \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) - \left( \frac{2}{n\pi} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) - \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} [1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)] \right)
\]
\[
= \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} [1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)]
\]
---
## **Final Fourier Cosine Series:**
\[
f(x) = \frac{1}{4} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} \left[1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)\right] \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right)
\]
---
### **(c) Sketch for 3 Periods**
- The function is periodic with period 2.
- For sketching 3 periods, plot the function from \( x = -2 \) to \( x = 4 \).
- The original \( f(x) \) is 1 at \( x = 0 \), decreases linearly to 0 at \( x = 1 \), and is 0 from \( x = 1 \) to \( x = 2 \), and repeats every 2 units.
#### **Sketch Steps:**
1. Draw \( f(x) = 1-x \) for \( 0 < x < 1 \).
2. Draw \( f(x) = 0 \) for \( 1 \leq x < 2 \).
3. Repeat for intervals \( 2 < x < 4 \), \( -2 < x < 0 \), etc.
---
## **Summary Table**
| Step | Expression |
|-------------------------|----------------------------------------------------------------------------|
| Period | \(T = 2\) |
| \(a_0\) | \(\frac{1}{4}\) |
| \(a_n\) | \(\frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} [1 - \cos(\frac{n\pi}{2})]\) |
| Fourier series | \(f(x) = \frac{1}{4} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n \cos(\frac{n\pi x}{2})\) |
---
## **Final Answers**
### **Fourier Cosine Series:**
\[
\boxed{
f(x) = \frac{1}{4} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{4}{n^2\pi^2} \left[1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)\right] \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right)
}
\]
### **Sketch:**
- Draw the function as described above for three periods.
---
If you want a plotted sketch, let me know!
Question:
i need only all final answers only
This is AI generated Response.
Asked by: pr
Created at: 2025-05-26 10:54:05
Asked by: pr
Created at: 2025-05-26 10:54:05
Final Answer:
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Did you like this answer?
Final Fourier Cosine Series:
\[
f(x) = \frac{1}{4} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{4}{n^2 \pi^2} \left[1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)\right] \cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{2}\right)
\]
Note: The period is \( 2 \). The coefficients are:
- \( a_0 = \frac{1}{4} \)
- \( a_n = \frac{4}{n^2 \pi^2} \left[1 - \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right)\right] \) for \( n \geq 1 \).
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