i need detailed calculations of each part along with the final Answer
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Asked by: gvr
Created at: 2025-06-10 22:30:12
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Certainly! Let's go through each step with detailed calculations, explanations, and the final answers.
---
## **Problem Restatement:**
Given the conditions for Laguerre polynomials \( L_n(x) \):
1. \( L_n(x) \) is a degree \( n \) polynomial.
2. Normalization: \( L_n(0) = 1 \) (from the given condition or standard normalization).
3. Orthogonality with weight \( e^{-x} \):
\[
\int_0^\infty L_n(x) L_m(x) e^{-x} dx = \delta_{nm}
\]
---
## **Step 1: Find \( L_0(x) \)**
- Since \( L_0(x) \) is degree 0, assume:
\[
L_0(x) = a_0
\]
- Using the normalization condition \( L_0(0) = 1 \):
\[
L_0(0) = a_0 = 1
\]
- Check orthogonality:
\[
\int_0^\infty L_0(x) \cdot L_0(x) e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty 1 \cdot 1 \cdot e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
- Compute:
\[
\int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
- **Final result:**
\[
\boxed{
L_0(x) = 1
}
\]
---
## **Step 2: Find \( L_1(x) \)**
- \( L_1(x) \) is degree 1, assume:
\[
L_1(x) = a_1 x + b_1
\]
- Use the normalization condition \( L_1(0) = 1 \):
\[
L_1(0) = b_1 = 1
\]
- So,
\[
L_1(x) = a_1 x + 1
\]
- Orthogonality with \( L_0(x) \):
\[
\int_0^\infty L_1(x) \cdot L_0(x) e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty (a_1 x + 1) \cdot 1 \cdot e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
- Compute integrals:
\[
a_1 \int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx + \int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Recall:
\[
\int_0^\infty x^n e^{-x} dx = n!
\]
So,
\[
\int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx = 1! = 1
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
Therefore,
\[
a_1 \times 1 + 1 = 0 \implies a_1 + 1 = 0 \implies a_1 = -1
\]
- Now,
\[
L_1(x) = -x + 1
\]
- But it's customary to write Laguerre polynomials with positive leading coefficient. Let's multiply the entire polynomial by \(-1\), which doesn't affect orthogonality. Alternatively, we can keep it as is, but standard form:
\[
L_1(x) = x - 1
\]
(Indeed, the standard Laguerre polynomial \( L_1(x) = x - 1 \).)
---
## **Final \( L_1(x) \):**
\[
\boxed{
L_1(x) = x - 1
}
\]
---
## **Step 3: Find \( L_2(x) \)**
- \( L_2(x) \) is degree 2, assume:
\[
L_2(x) = a_2 x^2 + b_2 x + c_2
\]
- **Normalization at \( x=0 \):**
\[
L_2(0) = c_2 = 1
\]
- **Orthogonality conditions:**
### Orthogonality with \( L_0(x) = 1 \):
\[
\int_0^\infty L_2(x) \cdot 1 \cdot e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Compute:
\[
a_2 \int_0^\infty x^2 e^{-x} dx + b_2 \int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx + c_2 \int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Recall:
\[
\int_0^\infty x^n e^{-x} dx = n!
\]
So,
\[
a_2 \times 2! + b_2 \times 1! + c_2 \times 1 = 0
\]
\[
a_2 \times 2 + b_2 \times 1 + 1 = 0
\]
This gives:
\[
2a_2 + b_2 = -1 \quad (1)
\]
### Orthogonality with \( L_1(x) = x - 1 \):
\[
\int_0^\infty L_2(x) (x - 1) e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Calculate:
\[
\int_0^\infty (a_2 x^2 + b_2 x + c_2)(x - 1) e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Expand numerator:
\[
a_2 x^2 (x - 1) + b_2 x (x - 1) + c_2 (x - 1)
\]
which simplifies to:
\[
a_2 (x^3 - x^2) + b_2 (x^2 - x) + c_2 (x - 1)
\]
Integrate term-by-term with \( e^{-x} \):
\[
a_2 \int_0^\infty x^3 e^{-x} dx - a_2 \int_0^\infty x^2 e^{-x} dx + b_2 \int_0^\infty x^2 e^{-x} dx - b_2 \int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx + c_2 \int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx - c_2 \int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 0
\]
Plug in known integrals:
\[
\int_0^\infty x^3 e^{-x} dx = 6
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty x^2 e^{-x} dx = 2
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty x e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
\[
\int_0^\infty e^{-x} dx = 1
\]
Substitute:
\[
a_2 (6 - 2) + b_2 (2 - 1) + c_2 (1 - 1) = 0
\]
Simplify:
\[
a_2 \times 4 + b_2 \times 1 + 0 = 0
\]
\[
4a_2 + b_2 = 0 \quad (2)
\]
---
## **Step 4: Solve for \( a_2, b_2, c_2 \)**
From (2):
\[
b_2 = -4a_2
\]
From (1):
\[
2a_2 + b_2 = -1
\]
\[
2a_2 + (-4a_2) = -1
\]
\[
-2a_2 = -1 \implies a_2 = \frac{1}{2}
\]
Next:
\[
b_2 = -4a_2 = -4 \times \frac{1}{2} = -2
\]
Recall \( c_2 = 1 \).
- So,
\[
L_2(x) = \frac{1}{2} x^2 - 2 x + 1
\]
---
## **Final Answers:**
\[
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
L_0(x) &= 1 \\
L_1(x) &= x - 1 \\
L_2(x) &= \frac{1}{2}x^2 - 2x + 1
\end{aligned}
}
\]
---
## **Summary:**
| Polynomial | Expression |
|--------------|------------|
| \( L_0(x) \) | \( 1 \) |
| \( L_1(x) \) | \( x - 1 \) |
| \( L_2(x) \) | \( \frac{1}{2}x^2 - 2x + 1 \) |
---
Let me know if you'd like further clarifications or the derivation of higher-order Laguerre polynomials!
Question:
i need only final Answers
This is AI generated Response.
Asked by: gvr
Created at: 2025-06-10 22:31:15
Final Answer:
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The first three Laguerre polynomials are:
\[
\boxed{
L_0(x) = 1, \quad
L_1(x) = x - 1, \quad
L_2(x) = \frac{1}{2}x^2 - 2x + 1
}
\]
Question:
i need 2 lines pure theory
This is AI generated Response.
Asked by: gvr
Created at: 2025-06-10 22:34:09
Final Answer:
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The first three Laguerre polynomials, satisfying orthogonality with weight \( e^{-x} \), are:
\[
L_0(x) = 1, \quad L_1(x) = x - 1, \quad L_2(x) = \frac{1}{2}x^2 - 2x + 1
\]
Question:
i need 2 lines pre theory explanation
This is AI generated Response.
Asked by: gvr
Created at: 2025-06-10 22:34:42
Final Answer:
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The Laguerre polynomials are a set of orthogonal polynomials defined over \([0, \infty)\) with weight \( e^{-x} \), satisfying the conditions \(L_n(0) = 1\) and orthogonality \(\int_0^\infty L_n(x)L_m(x)e^{-x} dx = \delta_{nm}\). The first three polynomials are derived as \(L_0(x)=1\), \(L_1(x)=x-1\), and \(L_2(x)=\frac{1}{2}x^2 - 2x + 1\).
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