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Give step-by-step solution with explanation and final answer: A water main is to be laid to supply water to a subdivision located 2 miles from a water tower. The water level inside the tower is 150 ft above ground, and the subdivision consumes a maximum of 10,000 gpm of water. Assume schedule 40 new commercial steel pipe. The pressure above the water in the tank is 1 atm, and the water pressure at the subdivision is 30 psig: (a) What size (calculate the diameter in inches as well as the recommended standard nominal pipe diameter in inches) pipe should be used for the water main if you ignore the kinetic energy change? (b) After ignoring the kinetic energy change, validate whether this was a good assumption.

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Give step-by-step solution with explanation and final answer: A water main is to be laid to supply water to a subdivision located 2 miles from a water tower. The water level inside the tower is 150 ft above ground, and the subdivision consumes a maximum of 10,000 gpm of water. Assume schedule 40 new commercial steel pipe. The pressure above the water in the tank is 1 atm, and the water pressure at the subdivision is 30 psig: (a) What size (calculate the diameter in inches as well as the recommended standard nominal pipe diameter in inches) pipe should be used for the water main if you ignore the kinetic energy change? (b) After ignoring the kinetic energy change, validate whether this was a good assumption.

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Asked by: manish kumar
Created at: 2025-08-17 08:39:34

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Let's solve the problem step by step. **Given:** - Distance from tower to subdivision, \(L = 2\) miles \(= 10,560\) ft - Elevation difference, \(\Delta z = 150\) ft (tower above ground) - Flow rate, \(Q = 10,000\) gpm - Pressure at subdivision, \(P_2 = 30\) psig - Pressure at top of water in tank, \(P_1 = 1\) atm (assume vented to atmosphere) - Schedule 40 commercial steel pipe (we'll use roughness \(\epsilon = 0.00015\) ft) - Ignore kinetic energy change (i.e., \(\Delta V^2/2g \approx 0\)) - Water temperature ~room temperature, so \(\rho = 62.4\) lb/ft³, \(\mu = 1.1 \times 10^{-5}\) lb·s/ft² --- ## **Step 1: Write the Energy Equation (Bernoulli with head loss)** Between the water surface in the tank (point 1) and the outlet in the subdivision (point 2): \[ \frac{P_1}{\gamma} + z_1 = \frac{P_2}{\gamma} + z_2 + h_f \] Where: - \(P_1 =\) atmospheric pressure (gauge = 0 psig) - \(z_1 = 150\) ft - \(P_2 = 30\) psig \(= 30 + 14.7 = 44.7\) psia (but we will use gauge, so just 30 psig) - \(z_2 = 0\) ft (street level) - \(h_f =\) head loss in pipe \(\gamma = 62.4\) lb/ft³ Rearrange: \[ h_f = \frac{P_1}{\gamma} + z_1 - \left(\frac{P_2}{\gamma} + z_2\right) \] Because \(P_1\) is atmospheric, \(P_1 = 0\) psig, so \(\frac{P_1}{\gamma} = 0\): \[ h_f = 150 - \frac{30 \times 144}{62.4} \] *Note: 1 psi = 144 psf; convert 30 psi to lb/ft²: 30 × 144 = 4320 lb/ft².* \[ \frac{4320}{62.4} = 69.23\ \text{ft} \] So, \[ h_f = 150 - 69.23 = 80.77\ \text{ft} \] --- ## **Step 2: Head Loss in Pipe (Darcy-Weisbach Equation)** \[ h_f = f \frac{L}{D} \frac{V^2}{2g} \] Where: - \(f =\) friction factor - \(L = 10,560\) ft - \(D =\) pipe diameter (ft) - \(V =\) average velocity (ft/s) - \(g = 32.2\) ft/s² --- ## **Step 3: Flow Rate and Velocity** \[ Q = AV \implies V = \frac{Q}{A} = \frac{Q}{\frac{\pi}{4} D^2} \] Convert Q to ft³/s: \[ Q = 10,000\ \text{gpm} \times \frac{1\ \text{ft}^3}{7.48\ \text{gal}} \times \frac{1}{60\ \text{s/min}} = \frac{10,000}{7.48 \times 60} = 22.29\ \text{ft}^3/\text{s} \] --- ## **Step 4: Substitute and Rearrange** Plug in \(V = \frac{4Q}{\pi D^2}\): \[ h_f = f \frac{L}{D} \frac{V^2}{2g} \] \[ 80.77 = f \cdot \frac{10,560}{D} \cdot \frac{1}{2 \times 32.2} \left( \frac{4Q}{\pi D^2} \right)^2 \] \[ = f \cdot \frac{10,560}{D} \cdot \frac{1}{64.4} \cdot \frac{16Q^2}{\pi^2 D^4} \] \[ = f \cdot \frac{10,560}{D} \cdot \frac{16Q^2}{64.4 \pi^2 D^4} \] \[ = f \cdot \frac{10,560 \times 16 Q^2}{64.4 \pi^2 D^5} \] \[ 80.77 = f \cdot \frac{10,560 \times 16 \times (22.29)^2}{64.4 \pi^2 D^5} \] Calculate \(16 \times (22.29)^2\): \[ (22.29)^2 = 497 \] \[ 16 \times 497 = 7,952 \] So, \[ 80.77 = f \cdot \frac{10,560 \times 7,952}{64.4 \pi^2 D^5} \] Calculate numerator: \(10,560 \times 7,952 = 83,990,720\) Calculate denominator: \(64.4 \times \pi^2 = 64.4 \times 9.87 = 635.7\) \[ 80.77 = f \cdot \frac{83,990,720}{635.7 \cdot D^5} \] \[ 80.77 = f \cdot \frac{132,205}{D^5} \] \[ 80.77 D^5 = f \cdot 132,205 \] \[ D^5 = \frac{f \cdot 132,205}{80.77} \] \[ D^5 = 1,636.36 f \] --- ## **Step 5: Estimate f and Solve for D** For commercial steel pipe, \(\epsilon = 0.00015\) ft. The flow is turbulent, but initial guess: for large pipes, \(f \approx 0.018 - 0.022\). Let’s iterate: **First, assume \(f = 0.02\)**: \[ D^5 = 1,636.36 \times 0.02 = 32.73 \] \[ D = (32.73)^{1/5} = \exp\left(\frac{1}{5} \ln 32.73\right) \] \[ \ln 32.73 = 3.49 \] \[ \frac{3.49}{5} = 0.698 \] \[ e^{0.698} = 2.01 \text{ ft} \] **So, D ≈ 2.01 ft = 24.1 inches** --- ## **Step 6: Calculate Velocity and Check Reynolds Number** \[ A = \frac{\pi}{4} D^2 = \frac{\pi}{4} (2.01)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4} \times 4.04 = 3.18\ \text{ft}^2 \] \[ V = \frac{Q}{A} = \frac{22.29}{3.18} = 7.01\ \text{ft/s} \] Reynolds number: \[ Re = \frac{VD}{\nu} \] Kinematic viscosity of water: \(\nu = 1.1 \times 10^{-5} \frac{\text{ft}^2}{\text{s}}\) \[ Re = \frac{7.01 \times 2.01}{1.1 \times 10^{-5}} = \frac{14.09}{1.1 \times 10^{-5}} \] \[ = 1.28 \times 10^6 \] --- ## **Step 7: Calculate f Using Colebrook-White (or Swamee-Jain)** Swamee-Jain: \[ f = 0.25 \left[ \log_{10} \left( \frac{\epsilon}{3.7D} + \frac{5.74}{Re^{0.9}} \right) \right]^{-2} \] \[ \frac{\epsilon}{3.7D} = \frac{0.00015}{3.7 \times 2.01} = \frac{0.00015}{7.437} = 2.02 \times 10^{-5} \] \[ \frac{5.74}{Re^{0.9}} = \frac{5.74}{(1.28 \times 10^6)^{0.9}} \] Take log: \[ \log_{10} (1.28 \times 10^6) = 6.107 \] \[ (1.28 \times 10^6)^{0.9} = 10^{6.107 \times 0.9} = 10^{5.50} = 3.16 \times 10^5 \] \[ \frac{5.74}{3.16 \times 10^5} = 1.82 \times 10^{-5} \] Sum: \[ 2.02 \times 10^{-5} + 1.82 \times 10^{-5} = 3.84 \times 10^{-5} \] \[ \log_{10} (3.84 \times 10^{-5}) = \log_{10}(3.84) - 5 = 0.584 - 5 = -4.416 \] \[ f = 0.25 \left[ -4.416 \right]^{-2} = 0.25 / (19.51) = 0.0128 \] --- ## **Step 8: Recalculate D Using New f** \[ D^5 = 1,636.36 \times 0.0128 = 20.95 \] \[ D = (20.95)^{1/5} \] \[ \ln 20.95 = 3.044; \ 3.044/5 = 0.609; \ e^{0.609} = 1.84\ \text{ft} = 22.1\ \text{in} \] --- ## **Step 9: Iterate Again** Update the velocity: \[ A = \frac{\pi}{4} (1.84)^2 = \frac{\pi}{4} \times 3.39 = 2.66\ \text{ft}^2 \] \[ V = \frac{22.29}{2.66} = 8.38\ \text{ft/s} \] \[ Re = \frac{8.38 \times 1.84}{1.1 \times 10^{-5}} = \frac{15.42}{1.1 \times 10^{-5}} = 1.40 \times 10^6 \] Swamee-Jain: \[ \frac{\epsilon}{3.7D} = \frac{0.00015}{3.7 \times 1.84} = 2.19 \times 10^{-5} \] \[ \frac{5.74}{(1.4 \times 10^6)^{0.9}} = \frac{5.74}{(10^{6.146 \times 0.9})} = 10^{5.53} = 3.39 \times 10^5 \] \[ \frac{5.74}{3.39 \times 10^5} = 1.69 \times 10^{-5} \] Sum: \(2.19 + 1.69 = 3.88 \times 10^{-5}\) \[ \log_{10} (3.88 \times 10^{-5}) = -4.411 \] \[ f = 0.25 / (19.45) = 0.01285 \] So f is essentially the same. Thus, **converged**. --- ## **Step 10: Standard Pipe Size** Actual inside diameters for Schedule 40 pipe: - 20 in: 19.00 in = 1.583 ft - 22 in: 21.00 in = 1.75 ft - 24 in: 22.50 in = 1.875 ft Our calculated D is 1.84 ft (22.1 in), so **use 24 inch Schedule 40** pipe (ID = 22.5 in = 1.875 ft). --- ## **Step 11: Check Assumption (Neglecting Kinetic Energy Term)** Kinetic energy term: \[ \Delta \left(\frac{V^2}{2g}\right) = \frac{V_2^2 - V_1^2}{2g} \] Assume V1 (water surface in tank) ≈ 0, so \[ \frac{V_2^2}{2g} = \frac{(8.38)^2}{2 \times 32.2} = \frac{70.2}{64.4} = 1.09\ \text{ft} \]

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