give answer in 3 step with explanation at the end of each step and final answer at the end:
Problem
3
Let
T
:
V
→
V
be the linear transformation and
v
i
eigenvectors corresponding to the distinct eigenvalues
λ
i
,
i
=
1
,
2
.
Show that the vectors
v
i
are linearly independent.Problem 3 Let 7:7 1" be the linear transformation and +; eigenvectors
corresponding to the distinct eigenvalues 7. 1.2. Show that the vectors v are
linearly independent.
Question:
give answer in 3 step with explanation at the end of each step and final answer at the end:
Problem
3
Let
T
:
V
→
V
be the linear transformation and
v
i
eigenvectors corresponding to the distinct eigenvalues
λ
i
,
i
=
1
,
2
.
Show that the vectors
v
i
are linearly independent.Problem 3 Let 7:7 1" be the linear transformation and +; eigenvectors
corresponding to the distinct eigenvalues 7. 1.2. Show that the vectors v are
linearly independent.
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Asked by: Test User 100194
Created at: 2025-05-07 16:58:42
Final Answer:
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Let's solve the problem step by step:
---
**Step 1: State the assumption for linear dependence**
Assume, for contradiction, that \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \) are linearly dependent. This means there exist scalars \( a_1 \) and \( a_2 \), **not both zero**, such that
\[
a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 = 0.
\]
**Explanation:**
If we can show that this equation only has the trivial solution \( a_1 = a_2 = 0 \), it will prove that \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \) are linearly independent.
---
**Step 2: Apply the linear transformation \( T \) to both sides**
Apply \( T \) to the above equation:
\[
T(a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2) = T(0) \implies a_1 T(v_1) + a_2 T(v_2) = 0.
\]
But \( T(v_1) = \lambda_1 v_1 \) and \( T(v_2) = \lambda_2 v_2 \), so:
\[
a_1 \lambda_1 v_1 + a_2 \lambda_2 v_2 = 0.
\]
**Explanation:**
By the definition of eigenvectors and eigenvalues, the effect of \( T \) on each eigenvector is simply to scale it by its eigenvalue.
---
**Step 3: Use the two equations to isolate the coefficients**
Now subtract \( \lambda_2 \) times the first equation from the second equation:
\[
(a_1 \lambda_1 v_1 + a_2 \lambda_2 v_2) - \lambda_2 (a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2) = 0
\]
\[
a_1 (\lambda_1 - \lambda_2) v_1 = 0
\]
Since \( v_1 \neq 0 \) and \( \lambda_1 \neq \lambda_2 \) (they are distinct), it follows that \( a_1 = 0 \).
Plug back into the original equation:
\[
a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 = 0 \implies 0 + a_2 v_2 = 0 \implies a_2 = 0
\]
**Explanation:**
Because the eigenvalues are distinct and the eigenvectors are nonzero, the only solution is the trivial one.
---
### **Final Answer:**
The only solution to \( a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 = 0 \) is \( a_1 = a_2 = 0 \), so the eigenvectors \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \) corresponding to **distinct eigenvalues** are **linearly independent**.
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