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give answer in 2 step with explanation at the end of each step and final answer at the end: Solving in all parts.Lemma 04.1. Let A be a set and S be a countable set. If there is a one-to-one function 9: A — S mapping A into S (note that we are not assuming g to be onto), then A is countable. Proof. Note that f [A] is countable since it is a subset of a countable set. Now f: A — J [A] is one-to-one onto. Thus A is countable. [mu] Theorem 04.10. The product set N x N is countable. Proof. Let f: Nx N — N be given by f (m,n) = 2™ 3". Then f is one-to-one as can easily be checked. So in view of Lemma 0.4.1 the result follows. [m} Let Xi, X>.... be nonempty sets. For each n € N let x, = {(z.,n) | z € Xa}. We therefore have X= {@)) |zeXi} X= {@2) |zeXs), ec Notice that for any k, m € N with k # m, x n Xi = () because the second coordinate of each element of X, k is different from the second coordinate of any element of Xow: Thus the sets X,, are mutually disjoint. We claim that card(J X,,) < card(U %). Indeed, for 0 every z € [J X,, let i(z) be the smallest positive integer such that z € Xj(.). Defining n=1 oo CI B:UXu— UXa by B(2) = (2i(2)) n=1 n=1 gives a one-to-one function 3; which proves the claim. The sets x, are called the dis- Jjointification of the sets X,. Next, let Sy, Ss, ... be disjoint sets and for each n let g, : S,, = Ty, be a function. Define BS EA 0 9: US. — UT, as follows: If z € J S,. then there exists exactly one k such that n=1 n=l n=1 x € Si. Then put g(x) = g (z). Check that g is indeed a well-defined function mapping 2) oo U S. into J T,,. Furthermore, if each g, is one-to-one, then so is g. n=1 n=1

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give answer in 2 step with explanation at the end of each step and final answer at the end: Solving in all parts.Uploaded ImageLemma 04.1. Let A be a set and S be a countable set. If there is a one-to-one function 9: A — S mapping A into S (note that we are not assuming g to be onto), then A is countable. Proof. Note that f [A] is countable since it is a subset of a countable set. Now f: A — J [A] is one-to-one onto. Thus A is countable. [mu] Theorem 04.10. The product set N x N is countable. Proof. Let f: Nx N — N be given by f (m,n) = 2™ 3". Then f is one-to-one as can easily be checked. So in view of Lemma 0.4.1 the result follows. [m} Let Xi, X>.... be nonempty sets. For each n € N let x, = {(z.,n) | z € Xa}. We therefore have X= {@)) |zeXi} X= {@2) |zeXs), ec Notice that for any k, m € N with k # m, x n Xi = () because the second coordinate of each element of X, k is different from the second coordinate of any element of Xow: Thus the sets X,, are mutually disjoint. We claim that card(J X,,) < card(U %). Indeed, for 0 every z € [J X,, let i(z) be the smallest positive integer such that z € Xj(.). Defining n=1 oo CI B:UXu— UXa by B(2) = (2i(2)) n=1 n=1 gives a one-to-one function 3; which proves the claim. The sets x, are called the dis- Jjointification of the sets X,. Next, let Sy, Ss, ... be disjoint sets and for each n let g, : S,, = Ty, be a function. Define BS EA 0 9: US. — UT, as follows: If z € J S,. then there exists exactly one k such that n=1 n=l n=1 x € Si. Then put g(x) = g (z). Check that g is indeed a well-defined function mapping 2) oo U S. into J T,,. Furthermore, if each g, is one-to-one, then so is g. n=1 n=1

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Asked by: Pagal
Created at: 2025-06-13 05:10:42

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Let's break down the main result (Theorem 04.10: The product set \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable) in 2 steps, with explanations for each step, and then provide the final answer. --- ### **Step 1: Constructing a one-to-one function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) to \(\mathbb{N}\)** **Explanation:** The proof uses a specific function \( f: \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \) defined by \( f(m, n) = 2^m \cdot 3^n \). - This function is **one-to-one (injective)** because the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic guarantees that every natural number has a unique prime factorization. So, different pairs \((m, n)\) will map to different numbers in \(\mathbb{N}\). --- ### **Step 2: Applying Lemma 04.1 to conclude countability** **Explanation:** By Lemma 04.1, if there is a one-to-one function from a set \(A\) to a countable set \(S\), then \(A\) is countable. - Here, \(A = \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) and \(S = \mathbb{N}\) (which is countable). - Since we have constructed a one-to-one function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) into \(\mathbb{N}\), it follows that \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable. --- ### **Final Answer:** \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable because there exists a one-to-one function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) into \(\mathbb{N}\), and \(\mathbb{N}\) is a countable set.

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Solving Theorem

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Asked by: Pagal
Created at: 2025-06-13 05:12:13

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**Step 1: Construct a one-to-one function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) to \(\mathbb{N}\).** - *Explanation:* Define the function \(f : \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}\) by \[ f(m, n) = 2^m \cdot 3^n. \] This function is **injective** because of the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, which states that every natural number has a unique prime factorization. Since different pairs \((m, n)\) produce distinct products \(2^m 3^n\), the function \(f\) is one-to-one. --- **Step 2: Use Lemma 04.1 to conclude that \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable.** - *Explanation:* Lemma 04.1 states that if there exists an injective function from a set \(A\) into a countable set \(S\), then \(A\) is countable. Here, \(A = \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) and \(S = \mathbb{N}\). Since \(f\) is a one-to-one function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) into \(\mathbb{N}\), it follows that \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) must be countable. --- ### **Final answer:** \(\boxed{\text{The set } \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} \text{ is countable}}\) because there exists an injective function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) into \(\mathbb{N}\).

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The question is solved in step by step in all parts and human voice solution

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Asked by: Pagal
Created at: 2025-06-13 05:15:04

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Let's understand why the set \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable, step by step, with clear explanations. --- ### **Step 1: Constructing an injective (one-to-one) function from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) to \(\mathbb{N}\)** **Explanation:** To show that \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable, a common approach is to find a way to assign each pair \((m, n)\) of natural numbers to a unique natural number. One effective method is to leverage prime factorization. Consider the function: \[ f(m, n) = 2^m \times 3^n \] where \(2\) and \(3\) are prime numbers. - Since every natural number has a unique prime factorization, each pair \((m, n)\) corresponds to a unique product \(2^m \times 3^n\). - Different pairs produce different products because the exponents of primes are unique. - Therefore, this function \(f\) is **injective**; no two different pairs \((m, n)\) map to the same number. --- ### **Step 2: Applying the lemma to conclude \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable** **Explanation:** Recall Lemma 04.1: *If there's an injective function from a set \(A\) into a countable set \(S\), then \(A\) is countable.* Here, - \(A = \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) - \(S = \mathbb{N}\), which is known to be countable Since we've constructed the injective function \(f\) from \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) into \(\mathbb{N}\), it follows directly from the lemma that **\(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) is countable**. --- ### **Final conclusion:** Because we can assign each pair \((m, n)\) a unique natural number via \(f(m, n) = 2^m \times 3^n\), and since \(\mathbb{N}\) is countable, the set \(\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}\) must also be countable. **Thus, the set of all ordered pairs of natural numbers is countable.**

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